Islam is evil. Its core texts and dominant interpretations sanction perpetual violence, subjugation of women and minorities, and doctrinal resistance to reform, yielding fruits of suffering that vastly outweigh any benevolence. Equivocation only perpetuates harm; truth requires declaring it so to dismantle the ideology's grip and foster human progress unhindered by medieval mandates.
Hey Tabreez. Thanks for being patient
Not cheeky at all! Just using the definitions that medical historians themselves use.
When scholars distinguish infirmaries from hospitals, they’re doing so because the institutional hospital is a specific historical invention, not a generic category of "places where sick people received care"
Here’s the point you’re skipping:
If Mihintale met the criteria, historians wouldn’t classify it as a monastic infirmary = but they do.
Repeatedly.
Across every major survey of ancient medicine.
And the distinction is not arbitrary:
Infirmary (Mihintale):
monks only
Ayurvedic therapy
no continuous public charity
no disease-organized wards
no triage system
no administrative structure
no instruction of physicians
Hospital (Basilieas model):
staffed medical professionals
open to the general public
isolation wards
disease-specific wings
charitable mandate
institutional funding
attached medical instruction
Those are not ‘narrow caveats’, those are the features that define the institution.
You asked who invented the hospital, not who had early forms of care.
If we blur the categories, then by your logic Babylonian healing temples, Asklepion shrines, or Roman valetudinaria would all count as "hospitals" which no historian claims.
History isn’t playing semantic games. It is distinguishing types of institutions.
Christians didn’t invent "places where sick people existed".
They invented the hospital as a structured, charitable, and publicly accessible medical institution.
That’s not selective.
That’s literally the consensus in Porter, Nutton, Temkin, Ferngren, and every serious historian of medicine.
Islam is evil. Its core texts and dominant interpretations sanction perpetual violence, subjugation of women and minorities, and doctrinal resistance to reform, yielding fruits of suffering that vastly outweigh any benevolence. Equivocation only perpetuates harm; truth requires declaring it so to dismantle the ideology's grip and foster human progress unhindered by medieval mandates.
Sure. Now, I see islam first in your bio. So, here's what I want to do first:
There's a lot in here. If we're going to be debating each, then we need to focus on individual answers. We'll respond accordingly, and I see you don't have a check, so I will answer, you take as many comments you need to debate, then tag me back in to respond. Deal?
Thank you. So we are in full agreement:
✅ No Christian sect ever worshipped both Jesus and Mary as “two gods beside Allah.”
(Your words: “there’s no evidence of any Christian sect…”)
✅ The Collyridians were fringe, debated, not Christian, and did not worship Jesus at all.
✅ Therefore Qur’an 5:116 is not describing any real Christian group.
And if the verse is, as you say, a rhetorical warning rather than a description of Christian doctrine, then it simply reinforces the point I’ve been making:
Qur’an 5:116 puts into Jesus’ mouth a correction of a belief no Christians actually held.
That’s the entire argument. Nothing more, nothing less.
Thanks for the clarification.
Thank you. This actually proves my point cleanly.
If quran 5:116 is not describing any historical group that worshipped both Jesus and Mary as gods, and is instead a symbolic “broad anti-shirk warning,” then that means:
✅ The verse is not describing Christianity
✅ The verse is not describing any Christian sect
✅ The verse is addressing a scenario that never happened in Christian history
Which is exactly what I’ve been saying.
If a verse is framed as a dialogue with Jesus about what “your followers” supposedly did, but no followers of Jesus ever did this, then the verse is not correcting Christian doctrine, it’s correcting a belief Christians never held.
That’s all I was pointing out.
Let’s be precise:
Epiphanius says the Collyridians:
🚩were NOT Christians
🚩 were condemned by every Christian bishop
🚩did NOT worship Jesus at all
🚩 were a tiny local Arabian cult
🚩 practiced pagan bread-offering rituals
🚩 were so obscure he said they had to be hunted down to even find them
Which means:
They do NOT match Quran 5:116.
Not historically.
Not doctrinally.
Not grammatically.
Not theologically.
Qur’an 5:116 describes:
A group that worshipped Jesus
AND worshipped Mary
TOGETHER as gods beside Allah
AND identifies them as "the people" Jesus was sent to
No group in Christian history ever taught that.
Not the Collyridians.
Not the Maryamites.
Not anyone.
So let’s clarify the core issue:
Either:
(a) the Quran misunderstood Christian doctrine,
or
(b) the Quran is addressing an obscure Arabian pagan cult, not Christians.
There is no third option.
So I’ll ask one more time:
Can you name a single Christian sect actual Christians that ever worshipped both Jesus AND Mary as gods beside Allah?
Yes or no.
If the only example is a fringe pagan cult that didn’t worship Jesus, didn’t follow Christianity, and wasn’t part of the Church then the correct answer is no, and quran 5:116 is not describing Christians.
If quran 5:116 is describing Christians, name the Christian group that worshipped BOTH Jesus AND Mary as gods beside Allah.
If you can’t name one, then Quran 5:116 is not describing Christians.
If you say “the Collyridians,” then you admit they were not Christians, did not worship Jesus, and were condemned by Christians, so quran 5:116 still isn’t describing Christians.
Therefore you must choose:
Either the Quran misunderstood Christianity, or it was addressing a tiny pagan Arabian cult, not Christians. Which one?