@karemooo75@JamesKowalski88 1. I’m assuming you meant Avery mentioned “Jesus is gay in a sense”?
Got a timestamp for that?
2. By the way, how did this conversation come about? 🤔
I am a layman too. No problem with that.
1. “Baal” is not a name, it is a title, meaning “lord” or “master”.
2. If God and allah are the same being, why would he explicitly mention this “abrogation” of Baal in the Bible, but not the term “Father”, which is way more significant to the later generations, in the quran?
3. But if there is no evidence of supposed “abrogation” of the term “Father”, isnt all this just conjecture?
@ZMDawah@akhi__ex You mean the muslim asked Avery what if Jesus’ NAME in a hypothetical language was called “gay”?
If Jesus’ NAME was called “gay” in this language, what is wrong with calling him by his name? 🤔
Wow. First muslim that I’ve seen so far to acknowledge that awkward analogy.
a. The term “Father” would be God’s identity,
b. and giving Jesus the name “gay” in this hypothetical language is just a name.
It would sound weird to speakers who understood what it meant in English but that is not enough reason to remove it from being used as Jesus’ name(in this hypothetical situation).
Qn: Where in the quran/hadith does it support your position that a muslim can refer to allah as a father in the metaphorical sense?
1. Not sure what your point is but
a. said man was clothed when he was following Jesus
b. He left his cloth behind when running away naked
Why would this make Jesus “gay”?
2. “Secret gospel of mark” is a disputed text.
Even if you choose to quote it, it still says the same thing, he was clothed while with Jesus. Just because it mentions “naked” somewhere in the text makes it weird? Why?
Again, why would this make Jesus “gay”?
3. Please show me the definition of ἐμπαίζω based on what you referred to, not the screenshot of a response from chatgpt doing word comparisons.
Refer to image for definition of “empazio”.
Please let’s not do the name calling.
Can’t people ever have a civil dialogue without using derogatory terms?
A. 17:40 of the video
- God as Father is not His name, it is His identity.
- Hypothetical language which call Jesus as “gay” in that language is referring to a name, not identity.
B. The topic was “Was Jesus Muslim?”.
muslim’s position is yes, Jesus is a muslim. Therefore, the God of the Bible is allah of the quran.
If Jesus then called God his Father, that would make allah a father.
But the quran then says allah is a father to none.
Therefore, the onus is on the muslims to show evidence that allah aknowledges that he used to be called a father, but he then stops the muslims from using it because the term got misunderstood to mean father in a father-son relationship instead of creator/sustainer.
Can you point me to the quran/hadith with such reference?
muslims clip it exactly for such clickbait.
For example, please see OP’s title.
Do you care to explain Avery’s position and how he is forcing an argument?
Refer to 17:40 of the video.
Avery literally responded “God as Father” is His identity, not a name.
So even if you change the language, you will still call God the Father in whatever language you use.
1. Where in the quran/hadith did it say allah used to be a father but you can’t use the term any longer because the meaning has shifted?
Give a reference particularly for the former, “allah used to be a father”.
2. Go to 17:40 of the video.
a. “God as the Father” is God’s identity. You can change the language and God will still be called the Father in whatever language you use.
b. Hypothetical situation where a certain language uses the word “gay” as Jesus’s name in that language refers to a name.
“Father” is not a name of God.
@purdess381923@IslamicPackers@GodLogic_GL@muslimorthodoxy As how I respond to each comment, please do not resort to name calling. I think we can have a constructive dialogue without using derogatory terms.
Can you explain Avery’s argument?
1. Where does Mark 14:51-52 say that Jesus was caught with a naked man? What is the secret gospel of mark?
2. So washing his disciples’ feet is gay? Lol. You have great reading comprehension. 😂
3. “Spitting in a man’s mouth” please quote the entire verse here
4. “Empazio means raped”
wow. Where did you get that definition. Would love to see it.
@IslamMumin30@muslimorthodoxy@GodLogic_GL Do you just throw in verses in the hope that people do not read them and verify your claim?
1. Can you explain what is “gay” from the verses you quoted?
2. Luke 22:62 records “And he[Peter] went out and wept bitterly.”
Where does it talk about rape?
😂😂 did you understand that the question I put across was “can you give me the context of the 2 single verses you quoted”, not give me a logical argument based on 1 verse?
If I said “A king is not a servant, that he should wash the feet of others”.
Then if I followed your logical argument, if the king washes the feet of someone else, he is no longer a king?
Doesnt it sound absurd?
Won’t you ask why was the king washing someone’s fit? What was the CONTEXT?
@Ali10Amer Nope, you did not magnify “the crux of the context”, you just chose to ignore the context.
Do you read and understand the quran or any other books the same way?
Again, you just quoted a single verse.
Did you actually read the entire chapter or did you just search the phrase “God is not a man” to claim a win? 🫣
Numbers 22-23 was a record of how Balak, son of the king of Moab, felt threatened by the emergence of Israel, who has already defeated the Amorites and Bashan.
Instead of trying to fight them, they tried to invoke a curse on Israel through Balaam, a seer in the area.
But God appeared to Balaam multiple times, the first instance Balaam already understood and said in Num23:8 “How can I curse whom God has not cursed? How can I denounce whom the Lord has not denounced?”
And in Num 23:18-24, its the 2nd time God used Balaam to declare to Balak that a curse cannot be put on Israel because “God is not man, that he should lie, or a son of man, that he should change his mind. Has he said, and will he not do it? Or has he spoken, and will he not fulfill it?”
God has already made a covenant with Israel to bless them so He will not do otherwise.
So clearly it was in a reference to how God will not lie/change his mind like how man will.
It is comparing God’s faithfulness/truthfulness/consistency with man.
The same with Hosea. I won’t go into details but if you would like to, just let me know.
Maybe provide some statistics.
While Japan does not collate population based on religion, there was a research paper published by Professor Tanada Hirofumi from Waseda University in 2025, which put the estimated muslim population in Japan at ~420,000, with the largest population group belonging to Indonesia at ~200,000.
https://t.co/hmzUwjNNCj
On the other hand, the biggest Japanese expatriate population in a muslim country according to MOFA is Malaysia, with an estimated population of ~20,000.
In the ENTIRE Middle East, the Japanese expatriate population is ~10,000.
a. https://t.co/CNd12FXMth
b. https://t.co/QVmZGzygI2
So when you post claims, please back up with facts.