Harris Bolus

philosophy of science | history | logic

[Harris Bolus @HarrisBolus]

Most satisfying part of moving is setting up the bookshelf. Shoutout @JannyWurts

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@undebeha Gaussian elimination takes too much creativity? It’s so much easier to automate

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@alpeh_v Introduction to Model Theory

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@JannyWurts I love your portrayal of Lysaer and the Koriathain, and even the tragic and terrifying directive of the Fellowship. The way you fleshed out their motives and perspectives!

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@No5mallf3at … the part that’s in quotes. That’s why I used them. I copied and pasted straight from your tweet. I abbreviated the word “development” for X’s sake.

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@No5mallf3at I quoted you haha

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@No5mallf3at You said “The dev. of consciousness is a third person assessment of someone else coming to have experience” and that speech is a precondition of experience. I think those are both false. Consciousness is 1st person and speech is not required for it. What’s confusing?

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@No5mallf3at I am not on board with that use of the word consciousness at all. I am conscious regardless of anyone’s third person assessment of me.

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@No5mallf3at I have. I’m trying to make sense of what YOU mean by “the development of consciousness”. “The development of experience” does not mean the same thing. Experiences are mental events that occur in consciousness, so they are not the same thing.

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@No5mallf3at I.e. different experiences lead to the different cognitive structures for understanding the world. For example, Kant thought he could prove that our idea of space was Euclidean. Not only is it certainly not, but its properties vary based on experience in development.

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@No5mallf3at Kant doesn’t say experience is a necessary precondition for consciousness - it’s not one of his categories - and the categories are supposed to be a priori and thus independent of experience. So what’s this about the development of consciousness? Isn’t it an experiential process?

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@No5mallf3at Do you think tactile space and visual space are somehow based on a single category of sense-neutral ur-space? If so, how can they have such different geometries (among other properties)? If there’s no ur-space that precedes them, how can people blind from birth learn to see?

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@No5mallf3at Why call it external, rather than internal or neutral? Surely you’re not a direct realist. And since we all agree there’s more to the world than just a bunch of external theaters.

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@No5mallf3at @TimHenke9 I think Tim is on the same page about both descriptions working fine. I don’t think he means that x being “in” y implies that y is like metaphysically prior or anything, just that y is a weaker theory.

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@TimHenke9 @No5mallf3at Just to clarify, is your position that quantum logic is somehow prior to classical logic with respect to quantum systems? Or just that it’s more convenient than the equivalent theory in classical logic?

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@TimHenke9 @No5mallf3at Do you mean that the classical theory in question will be equivalent to a theory in (some fragment of) quantum logic? FOL is equivalent to a certain fragment of probability theory. Why couldn’t I say probability theory is hiding behind FOL?

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@TimHenke9 @No5mallf3at Gotcha. Normally I would worry about those cases just being equivocal, and prefer the indirect statements, but I recalled your bio. Would you say superposition creates real contradictions that can best be expressed paraconsistently?

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@TimHenke9 @No5mallf3at 2/2 that could be read off the states of the computer’s memory. And then it seems like we could have just used classical logic. Is there anything we *need* paraconsistent logic in order to model?

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@TimHenke9 @No5mallf3at 1/2 Sorry to butt in, but you brought up something I’ve been wondering about. What modeling applications do you have in mind? One I’m aware of is paraconsistent databases. But since they’re implemented on a computer, it seems to me that they’re isomorphic to some classical model