@Pashtun_NoCares Slave theory is nonsense and already debunked, also the etymology is not clear either. You're misinformed and doing ad hominems instead of addressing the point. If IVC admix was absent in Helmand basin till 0 CE onwards it can only come from Indic cline. Pretty simple to get
@b0red_historian Iron utilisation is not iron age necessarily and can predate iron age characteristic cultural landscape. Actual iron age in India begins around 1300 BCE in most major regions
@Pashtun_NoCares Bruh Helmand doesn't have enough AASI to be the source. In fact Helmand is mostly a dead end as it was replaced by BMAC as per archaeology of Afghanistan.
@Pashtun_NoCares I don't think you understand my point well. My argument is if IVC admix wasn't present in Helmand before 1500 BCE or 0 CE it came from migration from Gandhara / Upper Indus pop during early CE as DATES show for Tajiks.
@Pashtun_NoCares It's well after the timeframe when admix would've arrived, if we had a pre CE sample I would've understood.
KNT005.AG255-402 calCE (1724±12 BP)Kazakhstan_LIA-oKonyrtobe (Turkistan Region, Keles District)Kazakhstan970713L-BY198125U5a1a178.73%
@Pashtun_NoCares No you misinterpreted it. I said it didn't exist pre 0 CE (or pre 1500 BCE as well), and entered After 0 CE. Pashtuns can't have it from Helmand culture alone as they'd need excess IVC over Helmand.
@Pashtun_NoCares It's not ludicrous because as per DATES the Indic admix Tajiks is dated to early CE and pre 0 CE Bactria is devoid of IVC/AASI (Tajikistan Kushan samples and Uzbekistan Rabat_IA).
@Pashtun_NoCares It is possible in Helmand before 0 CE there was psuedo IVC profile (Gonur BA2), but I don't think it was due to few reasons. Anyways something like this is also possible
@Pashtun_NoCares All the non Swat part in this model is just Helmand_IA combined.
Afghan Pashtun (Helmand-Arghandab core) = 55-60% Helmand_IA (Bactrian-like) + 40-45% Indic