😂
Your punch analogy doesn’t prove your point. A punch causes physical harm, but sin is an offence against God, so you still need to explain why God requires someone to die before he forgives it.
Your judge example also doesn’t work. A judge is limited by the law, but God is supposed to be all-powerful and the one who sets the rules. Who is forcing God to demand a sacrifice before he forgives sin?
And if the father of the victim gives himself up for the murderer, the murderer’s crime still remains. The father suffers, but the murderer doesn’t become innocent because of it. So how does Jesus dying pay for everyone else’s sins??
John 15:13 says there is no greater love than laying down your life for your friends. It says nothing about God being unable to forgive sin without a sacrifice.
My original question still stands. Adam and Eve sinned first so why did God not require Jesus to die then? If God could forgive them without a crucifixion, why was Jesus’ death necessary later? And if he couldn’t forgive them without one, why did he wait thousands of years??
Lol
Calling it a strawman doesn’t address my point. If God’s plan required Jesus to be crucified to save humanity from sin, why was no crucifixion necessary when Adam and Eve first sinned? The size of the human population doesn’t explain why forgiveness required a sacrifice in the first place. Why couldn’t an all-powerful God forgive sin without requiring Jesus to die??
@stquixote@ithinkitmyway@Deenresponds Keep coping!
Do you know Satan took your man-god Jesus up to a mountain and offered him all the kingdoms of the world? So Satan was tempting your God with things he supposedly created and owned.😂😂😂😂💀
@KarmeloAnt37119@korrathetaymi Lol, so Christianity is false because no one was crucified when Adam and Eve committed the first sin.
Christianity was later developed!
The Orthodox Muslim did a segment on Discord where he brings Muslims on to debate him while he plays devil’s advocate as a Christian and was proud of a Muslim knowing how to present his argument well against him!
😭 you’re explaining what the Trinity teaches, but explaining a belief doesn’t automatically prove it’s true.
In John 20:17, Jesus says, I ascend unto my Father and your Father and to my God, and your God. He calls the Father MY God. Your explanation is that Jesus had a God because of his human nature but where does Jesus clearly explain this himself? You’re interpreting the verse through the Trinity rather than proving the Trinity from the verse.
Thomas calling Jesus my Lord and my God in John 20:28 doesn’t erase the verses where Jesus distinguishes himself from God and prays to Him. You need to explain both, not quote one and ignore the other.
And even if Psalm 22 points to Jesus, how does that prove Jesus is God? A prophecy about someone’s suffering doesn’t prove they’re the Almighty.
You quoted church fathers and preachers, but their interpretation doesn’t automatically make it correct.
So my question remains simple. Where does Jesus clearly teach that he is God and that the Father is his God because of his human nature? Show me the text, not only the explanation of the doctrine you already believe.
Lol you explained why Jesus quoted Psalm 22, but you still haven’t answered my point. Even if Jesus was fulfilling prophecy why was he crying out to God and asking why God had forsaken him? If Jesus is God who was he calling God and why was he asking him for help?
Saying he was quoting a Psalm explains where the words came from. It doesn’t answer the question about who Jesus was speaking to. You believe Jesus is God, yet in this passage Jesus is clearly speaking to someone he calls his God.
And calling my question a red herring doesn’t answer it either. You haven’t shown how it’s unrelated to the nature of Jesus. Also quoting Psalm 22 doesn’t automatically prove every detail was a prophecy about Jesus. You still need to prove that claim.
So let’s stay on the point. Was Jesus calling himself God, or was he calling someone else his God?
Fun Fact, all 10 Qur'anic recitations are identical, having the same amount of Surahs and Verses
They came down as an answer to the prophet (pbuh)'s prayer (Sahih Bukhari 4991 Sahih muslim 821) to ease recitation being a global revelation, not sent to the israelites only, telling the 12 Jewish only disciples not to go to none jews and comparing them with 🐕s (Matthew 15:26) *excuse me sorry I meant "Pups" 🫢*
Now, let us look at Mr Logic/"Whats 1x3" bible
There are 10 different bibles with disagreement at the book level. The Ethiopian Orthodox bible (not in the picture) also has 80 books
Under Leibniz law we still have one Qur'an and One God. Under Leibniz law, you have 3 Gods and 11 bibles
Do you see how shameless these Christians are, claiming their Christian brethren's bible is corrupt, picking and choosing bible books, then quoting our beloved bible 🫢🤣
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Moreover:
Let us cast aside Dr Logic's testimony for a second and go to the very first Christian Church Father to translate the OT (Origen of Alexandria)
According to him, "The Holy Spirit" helped/allowed geographic contradictions, to make the reader ponder and give the bible allegorical meaning, and he cited some contradictions himself, and consoled them with his own opinion, See below:
Source: On First Principles (also known by its Latin title De Principiis or Greek Peri Archon) Exact Reference: Book IV, Chapter 2, Section 9
Origen mentions:
(Mark 5:1 & Luke 8:26) say that Jesus (pbuh) cast out a legion of demons into a herd of pigs in the town of Gerasa (modern day Jerash, Jordan)
Whereas (Matthew 8:28) says he performed this miracle thousands of leagues away in the town of Gadarenes/Gadara (Modern day Um Qais, Jordan)
He then invented his own Gospel/Opinion that the true location was "Gergesa"... so both Gospels ("God's word"/bible) were wrong, but Origen is right
He elaborated on this and other similar contradictions and said that the Holy Spirit helped create them and corrupt the scripture on purpose.
@UncAyoub@muslimorthodoxy Catholic practice involves devotion to Mary, whereas Christians maintain that Jesus is God and honor him accordingly, even though no biblical verse explicitly confirms this assertion.