@israeliens1@RTSG_Main “Russia owed money to French banks” is not the same as “Russia was a French colony.” That’s a slogan, not history. And claiming the Bolsheviks were democratic while defending the abolition of elections and one-party rule is a contradiction.
@israeliens1@RTSG_Main Russia wasn’t a French colony. The Constituent Assembly was elected by Russians. The Bolsheviks supported the election until they lost it. And ‘the U.S. had one major faction at one point’ isn’t the same thing as legally suppressing rival parties and establishing one-party rule.
@israeliens1@RTSG_Main The American Revolution replaced foreign rule with representative institutions. The Bolsheviks dissolved an elected assembly, suppressed opposition parties, and established one-party rule. Calling both ‘revolutions’ doesn’t make them equivalent.
@FrenchDooor@RTSG_Main The U.S. had trade deficits before NAFTA and after it. If one agreement caused the deficit, explain why the deficit predates the agreement. You’re mistaking correlation for causation.
@FrenchDooor@RTSG_Main “Nothing can fix it” is a slogan, not an argument. Trade deficits are economic outcomes, not laws of nature. Policy choices - including market reforms - can and do change them.
@jacksonhinkle FACT: You’re an idiot! If Stalin was a hero, then “hero” has lost all meaning. Heroes don’t build gulags, starve populations, and murder political opponents by the hundreds of thousands.
@israeliens1@RTSG_Main No one said it wasn’t a revolution. The question is whether dissolving an elected assembly after losing is democratic. The American Revolution was against a foreign crown; the Bolsheviks shut down Russia’s own elected legislature. Those aren’t equivalent.
@khrachvik If communism gets credit for every success of communist states, it also owns their failures. You can’t claim the victories, dismiss the disasters as “not real communism,” and call that a serious argument. Defending an ideology shouldn’t require rewriting history.
@israeliens1@RTSG_Main You’re moving the goalposts. Nobody voted for the Constitution in 1776 - it didn’t exist yet. The question is whether dissolving an elected assembly because you lost is democratic. If legitimacy comes solely from victory, that’s might makes right, not popular consent.
@1356ggdha427798@RTSG_Main Mao didn’t order Tiananmen - Deng did. But that doesn’t make Mao innocent. Mao owns the Great Leap Forward and Cultural Revolution; Deng owns Tiananmen. Different rulers, different atrocities.
@XiaoyesiKosaki@RTSG_Main Being ‘numb to it’ isn’t a counterargument - it’s just normalization of atrocity. The fact those images from Tiananmen Square are familiar doesn’t make them irrelevant; it makes them historically documented. Repetition doesn’t erase accountability.
@israeliens1@RTSG_Main The Kerensky government was Russia’s own post-Tsarist authority, not a French puppet. Foreign intervention in the civil war came after the Bolshevik seizure of power, not before it. And 1776 was a colonial independence war - 1917 Russia wasn’t a colony of France.
@israeliens1@RTSG_Main The U.S. fought a foreign government for independence. Lenin dissolved his own country’s elected legislature when it didn’t give him the outcome he wanted.
And if legitimacy is just force, stop claiming Lenin represented the people’s will. You’re arguing power, not consent.
@israeliens1@RTSG_Main That’s a circular argument: ‘Whoever seizes power must have represented the people because they seized power.’ By that logic, every successful coup, dictatorship, and military junta in history was legitimate. Political power and popular consent are not the same thing.