@moicontrewrld@JohnKirollos@SpiritofourLord@enesovat22 Just because my argument decimates you doesn’t mean it’s CHATGPT flop. Islam has been defeated by the internet and the Muslims don’t know what to do. Islam is dead and buried and Mohammed (police be upon him) is dead and buried under the feet of Jesus.
@IbnTaymiah44@somebodys0n In Quran 3:54 and 8:30, the Arabic says makr. Why does Allah attribute makr to Himself, and what does that mean in Islamic theology.
You’re conflating two different issues: God’s judgment over humanity and Israel’s civil laws under the Mosaic covenant.
God, as the Creator and giver of life, has the authority to judge every nation, whether Israel or not. That’s why He judged the world in the Flood, Sodom and Gomorrah, Egypt, Canaan, Babylon, and others. None of those judgments depended on the Mosaic covenant because God is the judge of all the earth (Genesis 18:25; Romans 2:12–16).
But Deuteronomy 13 and 17 are different. They are not universal commands for all people at all times. They are civil laws given to the nation of Israel, which functioned as a unique theocratic nation where God Himself was King. Apostasy in Israel wasn’t merely a private religious choice—it was covenant treason against the nation established directly by God. Just as treason against a modern state can carry severe penalties, covenant treason carried the death penalty in ancient Israel.
Notice that Christians are never commanded to execute apostates. In fact, under the New Covenant, Jesus explicitly rejected using violence to spread or preserve the faith. When His disciples wanted to call down fire on a Samaritan village, He rebuked them (Luke 9:54–56). He told Pilate, “My kingdom is not of this world. If it were, my servants would fight” (John 18:36). The apostles consistently taught church discipline—such as excommunication—not execution (e.g., 1 Corinthians 5).
So to answer your question directly: Yes, it was morally right for ancient Israel because God, the supreme moral authority, commanded it for that specific covenant nation. No, it is not a timeless moral command for all societies or for the Church.
That isn’t special pleading. Christians already recognize that many Mosaic civil laws were covenant-specific, while God’s moral character remains unchanging. The New Testament itself teaches that believers are no longer under the Mosaic covenant but under the New Covenant (Hebrews 8:13).
The real question isn’t whether God has the authority to judge sin—He does, over every nation. The question is whether He delegated the administration of that judgment to every society for all time. Scripture’s answer is no. He delegated it uniquely to ancient Israel under the Mosaic covenant, and that covenant has been fulfilled in Christ.
It’s okay you have personhood in the Quran too. You have Quran interceding for you against Allah. The Quran literally argues your case against Allah. It’s meant to be allahs uncreated speech? Why does it take form and intercede on your behalf? Seems like you have 2 uncreated beings in Islam. Is Quran a god that argues with Allah? Or is allah multiple…?
@rfmbtz@SamuelAyodele_T Does Mohammed pour out from the father? Is Allah a father to Mohammed?
I hate you lying Muslims you’ve become a shit stain on society and a stain on truth. Filthy pigs
There’s no where anywhere in any form or shape that takes parakletos and changes it to periklutos you’re a filthy lying dog.
Read John 15:26 which you some how forgot to mention while doing the Muslim dawah script.
John 15:26 (NIV)
“When the Advocate comes, whom I will send to you from the Father—the Spirit of truth who goes out from the Father—he will testify about me.”
So question to you is does Jesus send Mohammed?
@korrathetaymi I can almost guarantee the way Korra speaks that she is an undercover WHORE. That covering goes out the window and she gets the dick she’s begging for
You are entirely wrong on basic Greek grammar and textual history.
In the Greek Septuagint, YHWH explicitly identifies Himself using the absolute phrase "Ego eimi" with no predicate in Isaiah 41:4, 43:10, and 46:4.
Jesus used that identical absolute divine title in John 8:58.
If Jesus was just using "plain language everyone uses," the Jewish audience would not have immediately picked up stones to execute Him for blasphemy in the very next verse (John 8:59). They knew exactly what He was claiming.
Take your L along with your dead pedophile prophet
Well when Jesus himself says go baptise in the name of the father son and Holy Spirit that’s another one.
In genesis it says make man in ‘OUR’ image. Now how are we going to be made in gods image unless Jesus was there before creation?
Isiah 53 is a literal story of my saviour Jesus coming down and getting crucified for the transgressions of man.
Psalm 22 is also another one that has the story of Christ far before his birth.
These are all Old Testament if I go to the New Testament there is far more examples of Jesus saying he’s one with god. The issue is people that are low IQ don’t see it, genuinely anyone who reads the bible and tries to understand it, it becomes completely undeniable.
The Old Testament builds up to the New Testament. And even in the old there was clear signs of a triune god. Like YAHWEH on earth speaking to YAHWEH in heaven to rain Sulfur on sodom and Gomorrah in genesis 19:24. Why are there 2 Yahwehs speaking to each other?
Take some time raise some IQ.