A misericórdia tribal diz: "Precisamos cuidar dos nossos".
A misericórdia universal pergunta: "O que torna o desconhecido menos digno de cuidado?".
Essa pergunta é mais radical do que muitas revoluções políticas.
A maior vitória do cinismo não foi nos convencer de que a bondade não existe.
Foi convencer as pessoas bondosas de que deveriam sentir vergonha da própria bondade.
Since you've taken this argument to another thread, at least have the courtesy to represent my position and our conversation accurately.
I "Packed up and walked away" ??? You make it sound as if I had nothing to say when faced with your "brilliant" argument. I have answered you dozens of times, probably thousands of words!!! I have given you more attention on the past few days than probably your family have. And yet, you are not open to learn anything. You just want to vomit your weak arguments in circles. I have asked grok whose argument was best and it said mine. If you want, we can ask grok again. It is no use, though. There is not enough light in the world to help someone who doesn't want to open his eyes.
I've NEVER claimed Nazi Germany had free markets or that a stock certificate alone establishes capitalism.
My argument concerns actual economic relations: private ownership of industrial capital, wage labor, private accumulation of wealth, corporate profits and economically meaningful business decisions.
Buchheim and Scherner (2006) demonstrated that private ownership was not merely nominal. Stephen Gross (2018) explicitly describes Nazi Germany as a coercive, heavily state-directed capitalist economy.
You can disagree with these historians. But calling their findings "academic buzzwords" isn't a refutation.
And here's the extraordinary part: you accuse me of oversimplifying economic systems, then announce that a command economy is automatically socialism.
Really? Since when does government coercion establish social ownership of the means of production?
Fascism is a political ideology. State planning is an economic mechanism. Capitalism and socialism concern broader economic structures and ownership relations. These aren't interchangeable categories. I am tired of debating with you because you are incapable of admitting this. Without this basic agreement our conversation can't get anywhere.
And yes, the Nazi Party's 1920 program contained nationalization demands. The US Holocaust Memorial Museum explicitly acknowledges them, while also documenting that the regime largely chose to cooperate with business elites once in power.
Your entire argument depends on treating capitalism as synonymous with free markets and socialism as synonymous with state control.
That's not sophisticated structural analysis. It's precisely the conceptual confusion you keep accusing others of making.
And repeating that private ownership was a "facade" doesn't make the archival evidence disappear.
I will not continue with this circus.
Bye.
Let's address your accusations of cherry-picking, because your latest argument exposes exactly what you've been doing.
Yes, the Nazi Party's 1920 program demanded nationalization of trusts, profit-sharing and confiscation of war profits. Nobody needs to hide that.
But here's what you conveniently leave out: Nuremberg Document 1708-PS ALSO contains Hitler's 1928 clarification explicitly stating that the NSDAP supported private ownership.
More importantly, what happened when Hitler actually governed?
He didn't implement the promised general nationalization of industry. His government PRIVATIZED state assets, preserved major private corporations, destroyed independent unions and enabled selected businessmen to accumulate enormous private fortunes.
That's not speculation. Those are facts.
Now, since you keep demanding definitions:
Capitalism involves an economy substantially organized around privately owned productive capital, wage labor, production for exchange and private capital accumulation. It doesn't require unrestricted markets.
Feudalism was predominantly organized around landholding and dependent peasant labor. Ancient slave economies relied heavily on enslaved labor. Soviet state socialism largely replaced private industrial capitalists with state ownership.
These are meaningful structural distinctions, not arbitrary labels.
And your insistence that fascism or corporatism must be alternatives to capitalism is another category error. One describes political ideology; the other describes institutional organization. Neither automatically determines who owns productive capital.
Finally, Stephen Gross (2018) explicitly describes Nazi Germany as a coercive, state-directed capitalist economy. He doesn't ignore terror, cronyism or Aryanization. He incorporates them into his analysis.
You keep insisting that capitalism requires consumer sovereignty and market freedom. That's a particular economic theory, not an uncontested definition of economic history.
And here's the irony: you accuse me of cherry-picking a Nazi document while quoting its 1920 promises and ignoring its 1928 clarification, the privatizations of the 1930s, and the economic system Hitler actually maintained.
You can disagree with the historical classification. But declaring that capitalist institutions stop counting whenever a dictatorship restricts them is not a substitute for demonstrating that those institutions ceased to function.
I like you JSP, but how much longer we will keep doing this? I think that is enough.
Your definition of capitalism is fascinating. Apparently, capitalism exists only when markets are free, governments behave themselves, and businessmen earn their fortunes through wholesome competition.
The moment capitalists get rich through state contracts, monopolies, exploitation or political favoritism, capitalism magically disappears. How convenient! Capitalism is an economic system, not a certificate of good behavior.
Meanwhile, Nazi industrialists owned factories, employed wage workers, accumulated capital, collected profits and expanded their fortunes. But according to you, none of that counts.
You can disagree with the historians I mentioned. But repeatedly calling their evidence meaningless isn't a historical refutation. Either deal with the evidence they present or prove the evidence is false.
Your argument ultimately depends on one assumption: capitalism ceases to exist whenever market freedom falls below your preferred threshold. Yet you've never established that threshold or explained why historians must accept it.
You're entitled to your definition and to believe whatever you want to. You're not entitled to present it as an indisputable historical fact. Specially when there is well known evidence against it.
At this point, you're not defending a historical argument. You're defending a definition designed to make your conclusion impossible to falsify.
Every time evidence of private ownership, profits, capital accumulation or entrepreneurial autonomy is presented, you simply declare that none of it counts because the government was authoritarian.
That's circular reasoning, not economic history.
Nazi industrialists didn't hold imaginary assets. They accumulated real fortunes, expanded real businesses, received real dividends and acquired Jewish-owned enterprises through state-sponsored dispossession.
Buchheim, Scherner, Gross and Hayes have examined the historical evidence. You keep dismissing their findings because they don't fit your preferred Misesian definition.
And your slavery and feudalism analogies are straw men. Capitalism is a historically specific system of production.
Here's the fundamental problem: you've defined capitalism as economic freedom rather than a system of economic relations. Under your definition, whenever capitalism becomes sufficiently authoritarian, it magically stops being capitalism.
That's not an empirical discovery. It's a definitional escape hatch.
You don't get to erase capitalist ownership, private accumulation and corporate profits from history simply because the regime protecting and exploiting those arrangements was a dictatorship.
Dear JSP, you asked for a definition, so here it is: capitalism is an economic system characterized by substantial private ownership of productive assets, wage labor, private claims on profits and capital accumulation. It does not require unrestricted markets.
Nazi Germany preserved these relationships despite extraordinary state coercion.
Here's the difference you're overlooking: Soviet factory directors administered state property. Nazi industrialists owned private capital, received profits and dividends, and accumulated personal wealth. That's not merely an accounting technicality.
And Franco's economic policies being disastrous before 1959 doesn't mean Spain wasn't capitalist. Economic failure doesn't determine ownership relations.
Fascism, corporatism and autarky describe political organization and economic policies. They aren't mutually exclusive with capitalism.
Even Peter Hayes recognizes that Nazi property remained private while profits were heavily conditioned by state policy.
Stephen Gross (2018) explicitly describes Nazi Germany as a coercive, state-directed capitalist economy.
You have demonstrated extreme state domination. You haven't demonstrated the disappearance of private capital, capitalist ownership or private accumulation.
Noé, a URSS comprava produtos de empresas capitalistas, mas suas principais indústrias eram estatais. Na Alemanha nazista, grandes indústrias continuavam pertencendo a capitalistas privados, que apropriavam lucros, acumulavam patrimônio e mantinham parte de sua autonomia empresarial.
chamar de "capitalismo de fachada" pressupõe que a propriedade privada existia apenas no papel. Mas não era assim.
Empresários continuavam acumulando patrimônio, apropriando lucros, realizando investimentos e ampliando seus negócios. O próprio regime privatizou empresas estatais e transferiu propriedades confiscadas de judeus para outros empresários privados, enriquecendo os beneficiados.
O capitalismo nazista não era livre, nem igualitário. Mas propriedade privada, acumulação de capital e lucros empresariais não eram uma fachada. Eram parte do funcionamento do regime.
Jorjão, esses casos de expropriação realmente aconteceram. Ninguém está negando a brutalidade da intervenção nazista.
Mas você está confundindo a possibilidade de o Estado confiscar empresas com a abolição generalizada da propriedade privada.
O mesmo regime que expropriava determinadas empresas também privatizava outras, preservava grandes conglomerados privados e permitia a acumulação de lucros e patrimônio pelos empresários.
Isso está documentado por Germà Bel (2010) e Buchheim e Scherner (2006).
You're right about Nazi price controls, resource allocation, political terror and the Gestapo's intimidation of businessmen. Nobody disputes those facts.
But you're overlooking a fundamental distinction: Soviet factory directors managed state-owned assets. Nazi industrialists retained private equity, appropriated profits, accumulated wealth and exercised some independent investment decisions.
Buchheim and Scherner didn't merely document negotiations over technical details. They identified companies that refused government investment demands, sometimes successfully.
Even Scherner's separate 2008 study found that firms weren't necessarily forced to make investments the regime demanded.
And your Franco argument doesn't resolve this: authoritarian Spain was already capitalist before its 1959 liberalization, despite extensive economic controls.
You're applying Mises's definition of capitalism, which requires genuine market autonomy. That's a legitimate theoretical framework, but not the only one used in economic history.
You keep proving that Nazi Germany was a coercive, heavily planned dictatorship. What you haven't established is that its capitalist ownership and profit relations ceased to exist.
Your comparison actually undermines your argument.
Franco's Spain imposed price controls, import quotas, production restrictions and extensive state regulation of private investment. The IMF documents this. Yet you classify it as capitalist.
And your claim that Nazi businesses had absolutely no economic autonomy is factually incorrect.
Buchheim and Scherner (2006) documented substantial private discretion even under Nazi controls. Scherner (2008) found that firms resisted government investment demands without necessarily being expropriated.
JSP, we could go on like this forever, but I don't think we will reach an agreement.
You keep treating restricted property rights as nonexistent property rights. They're not the same thing.
Nazi businesses retained ownership, profits and meaningful economic autonomy despite severe state coercion.
And here's what you're overlooking: the Nazis actually helped private capitalists accumulate more wealth. Krupp made enormous profits from rearmament contracts, while other businessmen acquired Jewish-owned companies and assets at artificially low prices through "Aryanization."
The regime didn't simply control private capital. It helped selected private owners expand it, often through persecution, exploitation and forced labor.
You keep describing how authoritarian the Nazi state was. Nobody disputes that. But authoritarianism and capitalism are not mutually exclusive.
Authoritarian capitalism is hardly a contradiction. Historical examples include South Korea under Park Chung-hee, Taiwan under Chiang Kai-shek, Portugal under Salazar, Spain under Franco, Chile under Pinochet, Brazil under military rule, and Indonesia under Suharto. These regimes combined varying degrees of state economic control, political repression and restrictions on labor with private ownership, business profits and capital accumulation. Some favored free markets; others relied heavily on state planning. Capitalism doesn't require democracy or free markets, and authoritarian state intervention doesn't automatically make an economy socialist.
Inventamos uma solução extraordinária para a população em situação de rua:
Em vez de acabar com a falta de moradia, gastamos dinheiro para impedir que pessoas sem moradia consigam se deitar.
Não eliminamos o sofrimento.
Apenas redesenhamos as cidades para não precisar enxergá-lo.
You keep arguing against a claim I never made. Nobody said Nazi Germany had a free market or that businesses were free from state coercion.
Private owners still held assets, earned profits and exercised some economic control. Those rights were severely restricted, not nonexistent.
Even Peter Hayes, who emphasizes Nazi coercion, describes a mixed economy where ownership remained private.
Stephen Gross explicitly calls it a heavily state-directed capitalist economy.
Your mafia analogy doesn't invalidate decades of historical research.
Authoritarian capitalism isn't a contradiction. You simply refuse to acknowledge that capitalism can exist without economic freedom.
Jorjão, cartéis, controle de preços e intervenção estatal não eliminam automaticamente o capitalismo. Eliminam a liberdade de mercado.
A economia nazista preservou empresas privadas, trabalho assalariado e apropriação privada dos lucros, embora submetidos à ditadura.
E Fritz Thyssen não foi perseguido simplesmente por descumprir regras econômicas. Rompeu politicamente com Hitler, especialmente por sua oposição à guerra de 1939.
O nazismo era uma economia capitalista autoritária, não liberal. Não confunda capitalismo com livre mercado.
@JSPtheSecond@sacanarren@joaoeigen private firms still owned assets, retained profits and made meaningful economic decisions, as documented by Buchheim and Scherner (2006).
Yes, private property existed, but under authoritarian restrictions.
The state could override business decisions, yet private firms still retained profits, managed assets, pursued their own economic interests and exercised some independent decision-making.
A dictatorship can control capitalist enterprises without abolishing capitalism. @grok do you agree?