Can anyone explain this to me.
I ask because i cannot explain it .
I am now finding white fibrous clots in around 35% of all deceased coming in.
Thick white fibrous clots inside their arteries.
(pictured)
Now when i raised concerns with the coroner i was told “it’s totally normal” and after 18 years in the industry i know this is a blatant lie.
The chief coroner of England didn’t deny it- he said he doesn’t make government policy, he only follows it
So what is this fucking policy ?
But let’s assume the coroner is being honest and if it is “totally normal” pathology then for a moment.
Can anyone explain why is it i am not finding any of it in a single deceased that has been post mortemed ?
By various coroners across the country.
None.
It’s only present in those they haven’t opened up.
How can all of the deceased that are post mortemed not have any of it inside them and only those they haven’t touched contain it ?
How is that statistically possible?
So clearly they are removing it - it is the only logical conclusion based on the numbers and common sense.
Why is it they are they doing that ?- if it’s “normal” pathology why are they removing it. ?
I have seen clear evidence of them removing it.
Why would you do that with a normal pathology ?
It makes no sense at all and is utterly damming.
what utterly appalling conduct frankly by the very people you pay to protect you.