One of two pastors at Aletheia Church, Indianapolis, IN.
Husband of one, father of five, grandfather of two.
aka the Amateur Reformed Apologist (#ARAp)
Romams 9:21ff gives the answer as to why there are people created who will not be saved.
With regard to Romans 8...
It's not just logic. It's exegesis of the text.
And I know enough logic to raise an eyebrow at your assertion of circularity/begging the question.
So you would say them that there are two kinds of calling based on Romans 8, but you don't see how that particular call is infallible and always succeeds?
//"Yes, God knows who will believe. “Hope” in my sentence is quoting Paul, Acts 17, about God’s revealed desire, not wild guesses. Hope can’t be unwritten. Knowing the outcome does not turn the call into a fake choice."//
It doesn't make it a fake choice in the same way that determining it beforehand doesn't make it a fake choice.
I'm assuming you believe that God is omnipotent (all-powerful) as well as omniscient (all-knowing). That being the case, He would have known who would believe even before creating anyone. Why create people who wouldn't believe?
//"The same gospel goes to all, of course. What differs is one’s response rather than some second secret summons that cannot be refused. I can say the Spirit truly works in the call without making the outcome automatic."//
I contend that the Bible speaks of calling in two different ways. There is the Gospel call which you have mentioned in what I just cited. However, the Gospel call, which is to go out to everyone everywhere cannot be what Paul is referring to in Romans 8:29-30:
Romans 8:29-30 ESV For those whom he foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son, in order that he might be the firstborn among many brothers. (30) And those whom he predestined he also called, and those whom he called he also justified, and those whom he justified he also glorified.
The group "those" is the object of the verb "foreknew" (with God as the subject). The "those" are the same people who receive the action for all of the verbs throughout the two verses. All those who are foreknown are also predestined. All of them are then called. All of them are then justified and then glorified.
Note: All of the ones called in this sense are also justified. However, not all people who receive the general Gospel call are justified -- many do not believe. So, it follows that this kind of call is categorically different from the general Gospel call.
@realJennaEllis@DineshDSouza It's not about reaching a different conclusion.
It's about refusing to engage the Scriptures and the actual arguments Dinsesh's opponents are making.
@ShadowFoxMT@WilliamVan49544@DineshDSouza@ekkiet Does God call everyone in exactly the same way and in the same sense?
Better said, perhaps: Does the Bible use the term "call" in the same way all the time?
@Futadictoss@WilliamVan49544@DineshDSouza@ekkiet 100% false. God has determined to use the preaching of the Gospel as part of the necessary means by which He saves His elect.
No Gospel proclamation = no salvation. Why? Because God has determined Gospel proclamation (and prayer btw) as necessary.
Simple as that.
@DineshDSouza@ekkiet //"Aren’t you concealing the real issue which is that you can only believe if God preselected (predestined) you to believe? Do you believe this or not?"//
The Gospel call to repent and believe is just as much the "real issue" as God's predestining all things.
I appreciate you laying out a summary of what you believe on these matters; it is helpful.
I'd like to go through them in order, if I may. It will probably take a few questions under each section to address it properly. Here's what I see as the first section.
You said:
//"I believe God calls all men. He hopes they will believe. God hopes. I also believe not all will accept that call. In fact, as I understand, most won’t. I do not believe there is anything in Scripture that clearly defines grace as irresistible."//
This raises a few important questions:
1. Do you believe God calls all men in the same way?
2. Do you believe that God knows infallibly who will believe and who will not?
3. Does God have the ability to make His grace towards a particular sinner irresistable if He so chooses?
I urge people to believe in Jesus regularly, multiple times a week, even publicly.
I've been a Reformed Baptist for many years, happily holding to the 1689 London Baptist Confession of Faith.
There is no contradiction between holding to the doctrine of, say, Unconditional Election and urging men everywhere to believe.
@Sic_em__Dawgs@HwsEleutheroi@DineshDSouza It wasn't a waste of time, obviously, as God had a purpose for interacting with him and for having it recorded in Scripture.
This really shouldn't be a question.
The answer is for much the same reason that we recoil against brutal murder. It is truly evil, and it exists in a fallen world because of sin from wicked, evil men.
When evil and error are present, we ought to recoil against them and seek to correct them per what God has said His word.
God uses righteous means to bring about righteous ends.