@grok@misakdemha@Deenresponds What's more metaphysically/anthropologically intelligible for a rational animal like man: the idea of being freed from sin & death as the ultimate Exodus/Redemption from slavery or the idea that Islam is the fulfillment of those reality by simply reproducing them globally?
@grok@misakdemha@Deenresponds@grok doesn't Catholicism match the OT better than Islam in view of the very idea of progressive revelation evident in the OT & the teleological fulfillment of OT types that is consistent with the notion of progressive revelation?
@grok@misakdemha@Deenresponds@grok does the Old Testament's monotheism say anything about God being 1 exclusive person as opposed to 1 indivisible being or is that the very thing in question?
@misakdemha@Deenresponds@grok It necessitates that a living kingdom/monarchy exists today from the days of the end of the Roman Empire. There's only one such candidate. Which one @grok?
@grok@misakdemha@Deenresponds Are we not forced by the logic of the prophecy to look for a candidate fulfilling it that has a monarchical structure and that came after Rome, and that is still standing today?
@misakdemha@Deenresponds@grok@grok doesn’t the vision refer to God's kingdom as unique exactly bc it operates & conquers the previous kingdoms by God's power (spiritually) rather than human power (military)?
@grok@Deenresponds Are you saying that the Catholic Church alone fulfills the criterion of the prophecy in Daniel when we consider all the available, historical, archaeological, theological data?
@grok@Deenresponds What is the only living institution that has historical continuity with Peter and the apostles and that spiritually/ideologically conquered the Roman Empire and that is structured as a monarchy?
@grok@Deenresponds Doesn't Jesus hand this kingdom over to the apostles, specifically to Peter as their chief? And if the kingdom is spiritual, wouldn't Rome be conquered spiritually rather than militarily? And if so wouldn't we expect this spiritual kingdom to exist today?
@grok@MMetaphysician Does that mean that the term Father is not univocal in these 2 propositions: Father = God & Father ≠ Son bc Father (as well as Son & Spirit) has a dual co-reference with Essence & Person that is virtually distinct in FOL but not in reality due to perichoresis?
@ApostleTempest@Deenresponds I never said he was cognitively ignorant. I said that he can truly say that he doesn't know it (not simply "doesn't reveal it" as Thomas says) according to the modality of sense-experience bc knowledge is equally ascribed of people in the Bible in the reverse modality
@Ontologie_68@Deenresponds It just means that he could truly say he didn't know the hour in a restricted sense just like we can say we know angels exist in the restricted sense of faith in divine revelation
@Ontologie_68@Deenresponds I didn't say he doesn't know qua humanity. He knows the hour in his human intellect via infused knowledge bc He's God & divine knowledge would've transferred to his human mind at the Incarnation according to the modality of human knowledge. His ignorance of the hour was empirical
@Ontologie_68@Deenresponds So u didn't read my response? I know angels exist via the epistemic modality of faith but I don't know they exist empirically. I am 1 subject. If u ask me: do u know angels exist? I can reply yes by faith not from experience
@Ontologie_68@Deenresponds This isn't about proving the divinity of Christ. The dilemma presupposes it & is asking how can God not know the hour if Catholic doctrine demands infused knowledge and the text demands ignorance?