SCRIPTURE LOGIC

EPHESIANS 1:3 "Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ:"

[SCRIPTURE LOGIC @scripturelogic]

@DaMadMattster Tell me what the basics of the gospel that saved the disciples? What is that gospel called?

[SCRIPTURE LOGIC @scripturelogic]

@rc_outside @DaMadMattster https://t.co/QQ1vZB9OOS

[SCRIPTURE LOGIC @scripturelogic]

@DaMadMattster The only Gentiles John 3:16 applied to were individual Gentile proselytes who were sojourners among Israel by becoming part of Israel's covenant.

The rest of the Gentile Nations at that time were Ephesians 2:12 "having no hope and without God in the world".

[SCRIPTURE LOGIC @scripturelogic]

@DaMadMattster The only Gentiles John 3:16 applied to were individual Gentile proselytes who were sojourners among Israel by becoming part of Israel's covenant.

The rest of the Gentile Nations at that time were Ephesians 2:12 "having no hope and without God in the world".

[SCRIPTURE LOGIC @scripturelogic]

IS ROMANS 10:10 ONLY APPLICABLE TO ISRAEL?

NO.

When someone claims Romans 10:10 only applies to Israel, they create a real problem. They end up with Paul preaching two different messages of salvation at the same time; one that requires confession of the mouth for Israel, AND a different one
👉1 Corinthians 15:3-4 by faith alon👈 for the Body of Christ.

But that can't stand on two legs. WHY?By the time Paul wrote Romans, Israel's prophetic program had already been postponed. The only gospel in effect for salvation was the revelation of the mystery given to Paul. He isn't temporarily switching back to a suspended Kingdom message. He's speaking in the PRESENT TENSE to the saints in Rome about the righteousness that comes by faith right now.

If confession in Romans 10 belonged only to Israel's program, then Paul would be offering Israel a gospel that was no longer operational. That's not what the text shows. The same heart-belief that produces righteousness, followed by the mouth's confession of that truth, is simply how genuine faith expresses itself under the gospel that was already in full force. That's why the "Israel-only" reading doesn't hold. It forces Paul into two simultaneous gospels, which the timeline and the present-tense language of the chapter simply do not allow.

[SCRIPTURE LOGIC @scripturelogic]

@TheBiblicalUnie 🤦

[SCRIPTURE LOGIC @scripturelogic]

WHAT DID PAUL SAY WAS CONTAINED IN ORDINANCES?

People split Ephesians 2:15 into two piles: "the Law" that stays, and some "ordinances" that go. The verse does not do that. They usually mean things like:

•circumcision

•food laws

•ceremonial ordinances

•ritual washings

•temple requirements

•the extra requirements that made a Gentile a proselyte.

Those are the ones they say were nailed to the cross. Then they treat the Law itself as untouched. Ephesians 2:15 says Christ "ABOLISHED in His flesh
"the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances."

Read the clause as it stands.

•The law is SINGULAR.

•That one law is made up of commandments (PLURAL).

•Those commandments were contained in ordinances (PLURAL).

So the ordinances are not a side category next to the law. They are the FORM the law of commandments was given in. What got abolished is not just circumcision and a few ceremonies. It is the law of commandments, contained in ordinances.

Now read Colossians 2:14
"Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross."

Same subject. Same cross. Same ordinances.

If Ephesians says the law of commandments was contained in ordinances, then the handwriting of ordinances in Colossians IS that written form the law of commandments were contained in. The ordinances are the decrees. The decrees are what gave the law of commandments its legal force.

YOU CANNOT BLOT OUT THE DECREES AND STILL KEEP THE LAW INSIDE THEM LEGALLY IN FORCE.

[SCRIPTURE LOGIC @scripturelogic]

🌟DO UNBELEIVERS POSSESS THE SPIRITUAL BLESSING OF FORGIVENESS?

NO.

Ephesians 1:3 says God has blessed us with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ.

One of those blessings is "the forgiveness of sins" Ephesians 1:7. Notice Paul uses the exact same phrase in Ephesians 2:6:

He has "made us sit together in heavenly places in Christ Jesus."

The blessings in Ephesians 1:3 and the believers in Ephesians 2:6 are BOTH located "in heavenly places in Christ."

The world is not in Christ.
The world is not seated in the heavenly places. Therefore the spiritual blessing of forgiveness belongs only to those who are in Christ; not to the unbelieving world.

[SCRIPTURE LOGIC @scripturelogic]

Psalm 119:160 is true however, that does not mean every Mosaic ordinance continues unchanged forever.

The same bible calls the Levitical priesthood an "everlasting priesthood throughout their generations" Exodus 40:15 and a "perpetual statute" Exodus 29:9, yet Hebrews 7:12 declares, "For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law."

Likewise, the Day of Atonement is called "an everlasting statute" Leviticus 16:34, yet Hebrews shows it was a shadow fulfilled once for all in Christ.

God's word remains true; every righteous judgment endures in the sense and for the people and period He assigned it.

[Michael the Disciple @PolycarpsPen]

@chris_blodgett Dispensationalism is a ludicrous teaching that I reject full-stop.

You simply don’t believe this verse is true:

The sum of your word is truth,
and 👉EVERY ONE of your righteous rules endures FOREVER👈.
— Psalm 119:160

[SCRIPTURE LOGIC @scripturelogic]

@apurpleshadow This IS really good!

[SCRIPTURE LOGIC @scripturelogic]

@TheWatchmanHQ @MikeWingerii True.

[SCRIPTURE LOGIC @scripturelogic]

@ApoloJesuss @GodLogic_GL 🤣

[SCRIPTURE LOGIC @scripturelogic]

@BCSFellowship @JmraptureR Same Holy Spirit but different gospels.

Can you explain why Peter taught the little flock that they were only purged from their "old sins" 2 Peter 1:9 but Paul taught the BOC that we are forgiven of ALL trespasses?

[SCRIPTURE LOGIC @scripturelogic]

@w_bitterman 💯

[SCRIPTURE LOGIC @scripturelogic]

Is "reconciling the world" in 2 Corinthians 5:19 the same as "the reconciling of the world" in Romans 11:15?

No.

In 2 Corinthians 5:19, God is reconciling the world unto Himself, not imputing their trespasses, because Christ was made sin for us. That took place at the cross.

In Romans 11 the casting away of Israel is called the reconciling of the world because unbelieving Israel fell and were reconciled WITH the Gentile nations. Now the nations receive salvation and riches through Israel's fall.

One is God and the world. The other is Israel and the nations. These are two different timelines. They are not the same thing.

[SCRIPTURE LOGIC @scripturelogic]

@EvanPaul05 While I do get the actual purpose of your post which is sound, we do not offer God the blood of Christ; we trust in the blood He himself already offered to God the Father.

[SCRIPTURE LOGIC @scripturelogic]

@GuyJackson777 💯

[SCRIPTURE LOGIC @scripturelogic]

@my_MDI @BrysonGray So what ordinance did he blot out?

[SCRIPTURE LOGIC @scripturelogic]

Look at the actual wording in Colossians 2.

Verse 14 says Christ was "Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances… and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross."

That's finished. Past tense. Those ordinances have already been blotted out, removed, and dealt with. In plain language, they have already perished.

Then verses 21–22 talk about different ordinances: "Touch not; taste not; handle not; Which all are to perish with the using… after the commandments and doctrines of men."

These "are to perish." FUTURE. They're still here and will only pass away later through ordinary use. You can't honestly treat them as the same thing. One set has already been cancelled and taken out of the way. The other set is still present and still "to perish." The grammar and tenses keep them separate.

[SCRIPTURE LOGIC @scripturelogic]

@WWURD_Official This is true.

[SCRIPTURE LOGIC @scripturelogic]

@apurpleshadow Thanks sis. Glory to God! 🕊

[SCRIPTURE LOGIC @scripturelogic]

Look at the actual wording in Colossians 2.

Verse 14 says Christ was "Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances… and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross."

That's finished. Past tense. Those ordinances have already been blotted out, removed, and dealt with. In plain language, they have already perished.

Then verses 21–22 talk about different ordinances: "Touch not; taste not; handle not; Which all are to perish with the using… after the commandments and doctrines of men."

These "are to perish." FUTURE. They're still here and will only pass away later through ordinary use. You can't honestly treat them as the same thing. One set has already been cancelled and taken out of the way. The other set is still present and still "to perish." The grammar and tenses keep them separate.

[CCG BRYSON @BrysonGray]

Colossians 2 is about man-made traditions because it’s the literal context and Paul literally says it twice in the chapter.

But I can’t expect people that don’t read context to verses to know better.