Matthew 5:18
"For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled."
Last I checked, heaven and earth have not yet passed, which means The Law hasn't either according to Christ himself!
Why do people come after Bible believers with shock and anger when they read a post about lgbt, abortion, or other Christian topics?
Like are you surprised that a Bible believer posts about the Bible?
I don't go at Muslims with shock and anger every time they post about not eating pork, because of course they don't! That's part of their religion!
Except that Abraham is not the father of just the Jews, but all Israel (most of whom are considered gentiles at this point in history due to their captivity in Assyria and dispersion).
If the Law was given to Israel and the new covenant is with all of Israel (according to Jeremiah) , but at this point most of Israel is now gentile (except for the 1/6th called Jews), then why is it just the jews that are different in your opinion?
@VoteSympathy @EMaxwell56 I agree with you to a point. You are right we are saved by faith, and I'm glad you brought up Romans 3. Go two verses further (v. 31). Paul says that we are to uphold the Law along with our faith.
Jeremiah was alive during the old covenant, but he prophesied about the New in his book. In which he says the New will be the Law, but written on hearts, not on stone.
Im not saying the Law will save anyone. I am saying what Paul said, we are to uphold the Law, even with faith. And no, I do not observe Jewish law, because lots of Jewish law is not found in the Law according to scripture that was given to Israel.
Jerimiah says the "new covenant" is the same law, just now written on our hearts. Well if you know your biblical history, you would know the Law as given to Israel, before Jews existed. Then Israel split into two kingdoms, one of them was called the Kingdom of Judah (Jews). Most of the events of the NT took place with Jews, but the Law is not just for them, as they didn't exist when the law was given.
The Law was given to Israel prior to the Jews existing as a group. So it's odd to say it is for the jews (1/6th of Israel).
So according to God, there is no jew, nor gentile, as all are one in Christ. Except for here. Here there is a drastic, distinct difference. How does that work??
The Law is not Jewish. It was given by God to Israel, before Jews existed as a group. Those two provisions, do you know where He was quoting from? The Law. The concept of the Law on those two provisions is found in Deuteronomy.
If the holy spirit is guiding you away from God's Law, which he calls "eternal", "everlasting", "forever", etc, you are not following a holy spirit. You may be following a spirit, but it is not holy.
People get upset at the phrase "God doesn't have a son", and while I get it, it is also kinda true. Christ as he is represented in Christianity doesn't fit the english word son. It seems like it is just the best way to describe the way God allowed a part of him to be seen by man.
@aj_dunning @Lilith_Atheist How does a society that embraces delusion and feeds into a lie that biology doesn't exist effect me? Do I actually need to answer such a dumb question?
Oh no! You think I'm a bigot. That means nothing to me.