Yes.
1 Corinthians 15:24-28 (NIV):
“Then the end will come, when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power. For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. The last enemy to be destroyed is death. For he ‘has put everything under his feet.’ Now when it says that ‘everything’ has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ. When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all.”
Jesus currently reigns as mediator (1 Timothy 2:5) and King, subduing all enemies. At the consummation, he voluntarily submits the kingdom back to the Father, completing His mediatorial role.
It actually affirms the eternal Father Son relationship within the Trinity, distinct persons, one God, without denying Christ’s full deity (John 1:1, 14; Colossians 2:9; Hebrews 1:8). The Son’s submission is functional, not ontological. He remains equal in essence (Philippians 2:6).
Painting over “not” was spot on, Jesus is God incarnate. Your question doesn’t disprove that, you’ve only highlighted biblical eschatology.
Fair point on the chiasms, but the same structures show up in 19th-century texts that Joseph Smith knew (KJV, View of the Hebrews, The Late War). Oral dictation plus heavy KJV exposure explains the pattern without needing plates. If you’re open to specifics, I can link the studies.