Fleming Rutledge: “One of the traits that continues to compel us about this man Jesus is that, unlike anyone else who ever lived, he was entirely directed toward others at every moment of his life.”
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@SECcousinShane@MichaelWBratton I’m sure Josh Heupel will be sending Baylor a chin strap that can hold through war. That’s at least the second time his helmet came off in live play.
What language did Jesus speak? Most people assume Aramaic.
It is true that the gospels contain several statements where Jesus speaks Aramaic. Such as when He raises Jairus’s daughter from the dead and tells her, “talitha cumi.”
It’s also true that Aramaic had been growing in popularity leading up to the first century when Jesus walked the earth. So it makes sense that He would have spoken Aramaic.
But there’s a crucial false assumption here.
As modern English speakers, we live in a mono-lingual society. And it’s easy to project that reality onto past cultures. But most societies throughout history have been multi-lingual - including Judea in Jesus’ day.
So the question is not what language Jesus spoke, but which languages and when.
There’s good evidence that Jesus spoke both Greek and Hebrew as well as Aramaic and that He used these languages in different contexts throughout His ministry.
Jesus grew up in Nazareth, which was near the capital of the Galilee region: Sepphoris. This city was a hub of commerce - which meant it was heavily Greek influenced. Jesus likely would have visited the city with His father and learned to speak Greek there.
Of Jesus’ conversations in the gospels, at least two were likely in Greek. First, Jesus likely spoke Greek with the Roman centurion whose servant He healed, as Greek was the lingua franca, and it is unlikely the centurion knew Aramaic.
For several reasons, it is also very likely that Jesus spoke Greek with Nicodemus. First, the name Nicodemus is Greek. Second, Nicodemus was an upper-class Jew, making it likely that he spoke Greek on a regular basis. And third, the nuances of their conversation suggest that it was originally in Greek.
So Jesus almost certainly spoke Greek.
It is also likely that He spoke Hebrew and used it regularly in His ministry. Documents like the Dead Sea Scrolls, the Bar Kokhba letters, and the Mishnah attest that Hebrew was spoken for religious teaching and everyday use well into the second century AD.
It is probable that Jesus would have taught His fellow Jews in Hebrew, and we find evidence of this in the details of the Sermon on the Mount and other teachings.
Bottom line: as moderns, we tend to assume Jesus would have primarily spoken one language. But most of the world for most of history has been multi-lingual. And 1st century Galilee was no different.
Jesus almost certainly spoke Greek, Hebrew, and Aramaic - and He used them on different occasions for different purposes depending on who He was speaking to.
the way I often describe courses with Ephraim Radner is a relentless refutation of all simplistic answers to profound questions and intractable problems
this makes courses with him intimidating
but as a result, one becomes a more humble thinker and appreciator of mystery
God could have taught each of us immediately and individually, but "there would be no way for love, which ties people together in the bonds of unity, to make souls overflow and as it were intermingle with each other, if human beings learned nothing from human beings."
-Augustine, On Christian Teaching
I don't want to psychoanalyze, but I wonder if we are all prone to seek our identity and security in systems and ideas, rather than finding our rest in God himself.
“You do not keep my ways but show partiality in your instruction.”
—Mal 2:9
Pondering this as a preacher/pastor: what does it look like to be partial in our teaching? What we say? How we say it? What we avoid? Who we excuse? Why?
@pj_schreiner Do you write about so-called prosopological exegesis within the allegorical sense, and do you think the NT writers generally exhibit this sort of christological reading sensibility (e.g., Rom 15:3)?
@ShawnWGillogly@lukestamps If control around meaning is what we’re seeking, the theological/Christological confession provides it, not a hermeneutical parameter imported from outside Scripture’s own theological vision.
@ShawnWGillogly@lukestamps I agree that typology ≠ quadriga, but the NT doesn’t restrict itself to mere typology (as with Heb 10:5–7, Rom 15:3, etc., etc.). And I think the NT represents good confessional hermeneutics worth emulating. A single meaning approach risks importing foreign lenses to Scripture.
"The sure mark of an unliterary man is that he considers ‘I’ve read it already’ to be a conclusive argument against reading a work. Those who read great works, on the other hand, will read the same work ten, twenty or thirty times during the course of their life."
- C.S. Lewis
@ShawnWGillogly@lukestamps The NT doesn’t restrict itself to “analogous application” with the Psalms, though. See Hebrews 10:5–7. And there’s more where this came from.
“The experts in the law no longer knew me” (Jer 2). This is a jolting statement. Studied expertise in the subject matter does not guarantee genuine experience of the reality. We should cultivate self-awareness on this.