CCC 846-848
How are we to understand this affirmation, often repeated by the Church Fathers?335 Re-formulated positively, it means that all salvation comes from Christ the Head through the Church which is his Body:
Basing itself on Scripture and Tradition, the Council teaches that the Church, a pilgrim now on earth, is necessary for salvation: the one Christ is the mediator and the way of salvation; he is present to us in his body which is the Church. He himself explicitly asserted the necessity of faith and Baptism, and thereby affirmed at the same time the necessity of the Church which men enter through Baptism as through a door. Hence they could not be saved who, knowing that the Catholic Church was founded as necessary by God through Christ, would refuse either to enter it or to remain in it.336
335. Cf. Cyprian, Ep. 73.21:PL 3,1169; De unit.:PL 4,509-536.
336. LG 14; cf. Mk 16:16; Jn 3:5.
847 This affirmation is not aimed at those who, through no fault of their own, do not know Christ and his Church:
Those who, through no fault of their own, do not know the Gospel of Christ or his Church, but who nevertheless seek God with a sincere heart, and, moved by grace, try in their actions to do his will as they know it through the dictates of their conscience — those too may achieve eternal salvation.337
337. LG 16; cf. DS 3866-3872.
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(all) 848 "Although in ways known to himself God can lead those who, through no fault of their own, are ignorant of the Gospel, to that faith without which it is impossible to please him, the Church still has the obligation and also the sacred right to evangelize all men."338
338. AG 7; cf. Heb 11:6; 1 Cor 9:16.
I have multiple.
A confraternity edition from the 1950s
An rsv2ce
The Ignatius Catholic study bible
NLTCE
And the NABRE.
I also have the ones inspired by satanic Demons that removed books and intentionally mistranslated the Bible. The way you can tell they are satanic is they have 66 books instead of 73 and intentionally change the word tradition to teaching when convenient. If yours only has 66 book it’s satanic. If you’re intentionally mistranslates tradition for teaching when positive and keeps the true translation when negative. It’s satanic.
You also are likely lying. It’s a real shame.
@Truth_matters20 We reject your modern interpretations. We accept the teachings passed down to the disciples of the apostles of what they meant when they wrote the letters. Not pastor Jim Billy Bob of the reformed Baptist non denominational evangelical deliverance church of 3rd street.
@Thatbrian Love hearing the Bible quoted. But find it grating when it’s a modern interpretation or teaching that is different from what the disciples of the apostles wrote or that takes it out of its 1st century Jewish community context.
Were the Israelites Gods chosen people. With authority given to them?
Were the apostles given binding and losing authority by Christ?
Did the apostles bind that their successors have that authority?
Does that authority extend to the same, more or less extent than the leaders of Israel?
Is it more just to allow a person to lead souls to hell than it is to execute them if they refuse correction?
All these you must answer first
I literally spent $6 so i could paste this excerpt from my paper on the subject of James and his relation to oir Lord. i wrote this during my conversion journey.
One of the more interesting things about the argument over whether James was the biological brother of Jesus is that we do not have to guess what Jerome meant when he translated the Bible into Latin.
In Galatians 1:19 Jerome translates Paul’s reference to James as:
“Iacobum fratrem Domini”
James, the brother of the Lord.
The Latin word is frater, with fratrem being the accusative form. So yes, Jerome absolutely used the normal Latin word for “brother.”
But here is the important part.
Jerome himself explains what he believed that word meant in this particular case.
Around AD 383 he wrote Against Helvidius: The Perpetual Virginity of Blessed Mary. Helvidius was arguing that the “brothers of Jesus” were biological children born to Mary and Joseph after Jesus. In other words, this is not some modern Protestant objection that Jerome never considered. He was answering essentially this exact argument in the fourth century.
Jerome discusses the different ways Scripture can use the word “brother,” including natural brotherhood, common nationality, kinship and affection.
When he comes to the brothers of Jesus, his conclusion is explicit:
“cognatione … non natura”
By kinship, not by nature.
So when Jerome wrote “Iacobum fratrem Domini,” he was not telling his Latin readers that James was another biological son of Mary.
He believed James was called the Lord’s brother because of kinship.
Jerome goes even further in On Illustrious Men when discussing James the Just. He identifies James as the son of another Mary, whom he understood to be a relative of the Virgin Mary.
Jerome was also aware of the other ancient Christian explanation, that the brothers of Jesus were children of Joseph from an earlier marriage. That would make them stepbrothers. But that was not Jerome’s preferred explanation. Jerome argued for the close-relative interpretation.
This is why simply pointing to an English Bible and saying, “It says brother, therefore Mary had other children,” does not settle the question.
Jerome read the same Greek word.
He translated it with the normal Latin word for brother.
And then he wrote an entire argument explaining that in the case of James and the other “brothers of the Lord,” he understood the relationship as kinship rather than biological brotherhood.
You can disagree with Jerome’s interpretation.
But you cannot reasonably claim that Christians only invented this distinction because modern translations became inconvenient.
The man who produced the Latin Vulgate knew exactly what word he was translating, knew exactly what the objection was, and explicitly told us how he understood it.
“Brother” did not automatically mean “another biological child of Mary” to Jerome.
And because Jerome was much closer to the linguistic, cultural and interpretive world of the early Church than we are, I think his explanation at least deserves to be taken seriously rather than dismissed by applying a 21st-century English definition of “brother” to a 1st-century Jewish text.
@homen2@MarktheLess@JesusSaves1500 I’ve done actual research you’ve merely used your own interpretation completely outside the context of language and culture. The lazy one is you.
@needGod_net Keep doing this. Many convert to Catholic or orthodox because of you. Because you’re a demonic possessed man. And it shows on the videos. You’re scared. What has the demon threatened you with Ryan. What secret will be exposed?
@homen2@MarktheLess@JesusSaves1500 Because ancient Semitic languages (like Hebrew and Aramaic) used a single word for various degrees of close kinship, the New Testament writers often carried that inclusive habit into Koine Greek
@homen2@MarktheLess@JesusSaves1500 Interesting since the word brother isn’t the actual meaning of the word used as we use it today in English. In the 1st century the same koine Greek word is used for many different types of relations
@homen2@MarktheLess@JesusSaves1500 Either a cousin or step/half brother. I’ve answered this. Many many times. You’re using a poor understanding of Greek to English and out of 1st century context.
@homen2@MarktheLess@JesusSaves1500 Jerome the 1st full translation of the complete Bible even uses kinsmen not family. And no where will you find someone other than Jesus as the son of Mary.
@homen2@MarktheLess@JesusSaves1500 It would still be a sin. Jesus wouldn’t create a sin. James was a devout Jew and wouldn’t scandalize himself with public sin. And why didn’t she move back to be with him when he believed. All sorts of problems when you read it as a 1st century Jew.