@JonMcK1647@ShawnMathis1972 Unscriptural advice too:
1 Tim. 3:1 "This is a true saying, if a man desire the office of a bishop, he desireth a good work."
New in-debth article into Scripture and history. Fentiman:
There is no Divine Obligation for Infants or Young Children to regularly attend an Adult Worship Service
https://t.co/WiyR2xvefg
@DrInquisitivus@jonathanramont Thats not the meaning of "moral" here. See John Corbet, a disciple of Baxter:
https://t.co/zbUDLhrQpr
More on the distinction here:
https://t.co/1rozI8xl5V
@jonathanramont I am saying an EP interpretation of Ps 66 is that the nations are commanding to turn to YHWH, learn his worship from special revelation, and then sing EP. This is possible, which makes the hymnody interpretation not necessary. But one must demonstrate by necessary consequence
@jonathanramont@DrInquisitivus I distinguish the duty, whether it be from Ps. 66:4 or natural law/worship. If from Ps 66, it does not necessarily follow, as other interpretations of that duty in Ps. 66 allow for EP.
If from natural law, that needs to be proved. Your case for that doesn't wholly satisfy me
@jonathanramont If that verse is hortitative, jussive or imperative, it can be exhorting the nations (if it refers to them) to learn the instituted worship of God, to so sing praises, which allows for EP. With this possibility it is harder for hymnody to meet the burden of proof from this verse
@DrInquisitivus@jonathanramont Thank you. Yes it appears Baillie is speaking of the Assembly not having a problem with singing the doxology, but some (at least in the CoS) justified it under singing inspired words, albeit cut up and pasted together. So that of itself doesn't mean the WA was good with hymns
@DrInquisitivus@jonathanramont You might be thinking of a different passage than me. The one I am thinking of was at Baillie's congregation, ie in Scotland in 1643. See Baillie's paper (The Sum of my Conference) starting left page, left col. bottom:
https://t.co/yggeVA1DeU
@MarkMacdonald75@jonathanramont That is an interpretation, but the literal Hebrew (see an interlinear) is "all the earth", with "earth," or "land" in the singular.
@DrInquisitivus@jonathanramont Thank you for clarifying. But those passage exhort the nations to sing praise. Yet that may be as they come to know the Lord and learn how He ought to be praised from special revelation. Yet Jonathan's argument hinges on present worship of the nations being acceptable to God.
@DrInquisitivus@jonathanramont Baillie was speaking from his limited perspective about "everyone" singing the doxology (whether in the Scottish or English Church), and was historically wrong. Search for "doxology" in my article:
https://t.co/Krvz0LVyCr
Re: my assess. of the W divines, I will pass for now.
@DrInquisitivus@jonathanramont My arguments re: Ps. 66 just remove that passage as a support for his argument. His argument might stand from natural law or natural worship alone, if he can so make it, but he doesn't have explicit Scriptural support for that, in my opinion.
@DrInquisitivus@jonathanramont Eretz can mean either land or world. Other passages, as in Ps. 117 and Isa. 42 do not compel one meaning or the other in Ps. 66:4. The specific context in Ps. 66 is the most important, which I think corresponds to the land of Israel best.