Ok, I don't think you're actually going to get this unless I spell it out for you
There is no difference at all between using an anachronistic Latin word and an anachronistic word like steel
Translators often introduce anachronisms into the text to make familiar and relatable to readers
To use a simpler example, one of the earliest translations of the Bible says Adam and Eve made "breeches" out of fig leaves in the garden of Eden
Breeches are an article of clothing that was not invented until the 1500s
That doesn't mean the translators are liars, they are just using words that will be familiar and relatable to the reader
Ok, I don't think you're actually going to get this unless I spell it out for you
There is no difference at all between using an anachronistic Latin word and an anachronistic word like steel
Translators often introduce anachronisms into the text to make familiar and relatable to readers
To use a simpler example, one of the earliest translations of the Bible says Adam and Eve made "breeches" out of fig leaves in the garden of Eden
Breeches are an article of clothing that was not invented until the 1500s
That doesn't mean the translators are liars, they are just using words that will be familiar and relatable to the reader
@JosephH40363704@martyrian_slave@LowerLeavell Wait, so you're telling me a translator can introduce historically inaccurate words into a translation? Why would they do that? Liars?
Yes, the copies of copies are very old, that doesn't make them original
You still don't get it. Translators often introduce historically inaccurate words in order to make a translation more familiar and relatable to readers
This is why the KJV mentions "Lucifer" and the BoM mentions horses and steel
@martyrian_slave@JosephH40363704@LowerLeavell That's the question you have to answer
You're the one who thinks that translations cannot mention things that did not exist in the time/place they were written, remember?
Otherwise it's lying
@JosephH40363704@martyrian_slave@LowerLeavell So is it a lie when the KJV Bible has Isaiah the Hebrew prophet saying the Latin word "Lucifer" because Latin did not exist in Israel at the time of his writing?