@PracticalTheolo@Brotherhoodoft5 I have no desire to continue when you've been presented with the obvious and have been unable to see it in front of you.
@Askwhyisit You're taking the story too literally. When you do that, of course such questions are reasonable and come to the forefront of the mind. And it's good to ask such questions, and ponder the meaning.
@PracticalTheolo@Brotherhoodoft5 The "Word" or Logos doesn't mean something like "the message" in this context. At the time it was written, "Logos" was a concept that involved a tangible or visible manifestation of God. John uses it even more explicitly to refer to God who incarnated as a human.
@PracticalTheolo@Brotherhoodoft5 John 1:14 says the Word became flesh and dwelt among them, and is the Son of the Father.
John 1:17 names him as Jesus Christ.
John 1:26-34 again makes clear he has been referring to Jesus Christ.
Revelation 19:13 says Christ is named the Word of God.
@JennyWakefiel12 The name "Mother of God" points toward Jesus being God who incarnated. It's not saying that she is the cause of the eternal God. It points to Christ.
Also, a mother is not a mere "vessel", which is used and then discarded when it's no longer needed. That is not how God views it.
@PracticalTheolo@Brotherhoodoft5 It says it in MANY places. For instance, John 1:1, John 20:28, Titus 1:3 , Titus 2:13, 2 Peter 1:1...the list could go on and on.
@MJKelleyII I mean, the nature of "Schism" is that the thing existed but then broke into two. I'm more with the Eastern Orthodox position, personally, but I wouldn't say that Rome was invented in that year.
@Truth_matters20 Does baptizing an adult do nothing for them, as well? If so, why does Jesus say to do it? It's a meaningless and ineffectual act...for what, then?