@jeremywalter When you say provider, are you referring to a custodian? I think they're likely dime a dozen. I think there is value in an analysis of the transaction. Transfer costs, annual tax savings, stepped up basis,etc. Age of property for depreciation an profitability would matter.
@choffstein I(A) seems related to the benefits of transferring property (S351) = tax treatment of assets moving into the fund. I(B) is for benefits of money out of the fund.
Add together = placing certain assets in with advantage and later taking out with another advantage.
@MarkTMeredith Does an individual Ameriprise advisor have the ability to pick and choose like that? I don't know what they get up to but figured them more of a sales to the relationship person than an allocator.
@KrisAbdelmessih@grizzledtrader There are some nuances with regard to whether it is a qualified covered call or not (the 'month' part may factor in). Assuming it is, then tax treatment would be $100K LTCG and $50K LTCL (I believe the holding period changes, else there is an advantage play here).
@KrisAbdelmessih@grizzledtrader Sorry - not enough coffee...might be daft question: how can you lose $50K on a covered call?
You always make a gain (premium) on selling the call. You'd only make a loss if you bought it back at a higher premium, but then you would have called away the shares.
@grizzledtrader@KrisAbdelmessih To the question, you can net these out but only when the risk is removed. IE you can't start claiming losses against gains until you have closed out both positions.
@grizzledtrader@KrisAbdelmessih I think he was asking about something different.
In the question there is a connection between the positions, so you have wash sale concepts. The question was whether a derivative would circumvent that.
It doesn't, due to the 'Straddle Rule'.